I am just curious since i always here people say that they notice a difference in sound at lower impedance, if 2 ohms will make a noticeable difference in my setup. I currently (and temporarily) am running an MTX 81000d which is rated at 1000w into 2 ohm load. I modified it to run at lower impedance but don't really plan on it. Do you think that there will be a major discernible difference between me running it at 2 or 4 ohms? Will it be as dramatic as an am with rated minimum impedance of 1 ohm running at 1 vs. 4. Just curious because where mine is rated at 2 minimum, i didn't know if it would have the same adverse effect as minimum impedance on something capable of lower impedance loads due to lowered damping factor and higher THD, etc or if it will be less dramatic since i am still only halving it from 4 ohms. Sorry if this is confusing, i had trouble wording it

From what I know lower impedance does have more distortion, but I doubt you would hear it that much.. Sometimes people will notice a difference if they are running at 400 @ 4ohm and then they bump it up to 1000 @ 1 ohm which their electrical system might not be ready for, resulting in clipping the amp.

^ i was thinking the same, that it was due to voltage drop in addition to those other factors. assuming that damping factor and THD were a linear change, than technically i would still have better results @ 2ohms than a 1ohm stable amp run @ 1 i would think

^ i was thinking the same, that it was due to voltage drop in addition to those other factors. assuming that damping factor and THD were a linear change, than technically i would still have better results @ 2ohms than a 1ohm stable amp run @ 1 i would think

As long as your electrical is strong, you shouldn't have a problem running it at 1 ohm if you want. When talking about bass frequencies you won't notice a difference.