Posted January 6, 201114 yr If an amplifier is receiving a bandpassed input from the head unit of say 60hz - 2000hz and I used the RCA out from the amp to another amp will the second amp receive the same frequencies as the first?I would think so as I dont see how it could be full range as it's not receiving full range input from the source.Just thinking and wanted to double check with some of you guys to confirm.?
January 6, 201114 yr If the amplidiers output RCA was "pass thru" then the signal would be unaltered. Bandpass in bandpass out. The second amp would receive the same signal as the first.
January 6, 201114 yr Author If the amplidiers output RCA was "pass thru" then the signal would be unaltered. Bandpass in bandpass out. The second amp would receive the same signal as the first.That's my thoughts too. I don't see a way it couldn't be, but I have never done it so I asked.Thanks!
January 10, 201114 yr Is the processing done before the amplifier or using built in crossovers in the amplifier itself?Sundown has full range outputs. You can utilize the crossover section and ssf on the amp itself and create a bandpass filter. Line Out swill still be full range as they by pass the internal crossver section.
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