Posted August 5, 201015 yr Greetings out there. I have read many write ups and seen many videos about using test tones to set your amp gains with an o-scope. My question is when setting bass amp gains does it matter if you use a 40Hz tone over a 50Hz tone? Each topic on this has used a different tone but never told why. For those who dont know.. yes I am a so please inform me if there is a difference. Thanks..
August 5, 201015 yr If you have a scope they why would you use one tone? Use tones from 20 to 60hz and keep adjusting it until you don't have clipping. You can set you amp with one tone at 40hz but move it up to 50 hz and have clipping.
August 5, 201015 yr Author If you have a scope they why would you use one tone? Use tones from 20 to 60hz and keep adjusting it until you don't have clipping. You can set you amp with one tone at 40hz but move it up to 50 hz and have clipping.So then I should be using a sweep instead of a single tone, and just watch to see that it dont clip the entire sweep?
August 5, 201015 yr I use single tones from 20 to 60hz in 1hz increments. A sweep may work but could be to fast to adjust while its playing, depends on the duration of the sweep.
August 5, 201015 yr Author I use single tones from 20 to 60hz in 1hz increments. A sweep may work but could be to fast to adjust while its playing, depends on the duration of the sweep.And where could I find tones from 20 to 60? All I find are 20 30 35 40 and so on..
August 5, 201015 yr find shizzzon on here. he hosts tones from 1hz to over 1khz. You can get them through a link in his sig.
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